SAT, October 2026 North America Form A, Reading and Writing module 2.
27 questions · Free online practice
Open the interactive worksheetQuestion 1
Plants shift the timing of flowering as mean temperatures rise. Since species' sensitivity to temperature can vary by location, site-specific findings are often _____ for predicting how changing conditions affect plants in unstudied areas. However, plant databases like Canadensys have wide geographic coverage that can reveal larger trends. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. inspirational B. insufficient C. sensible D. distressing
Question 2
To maximize _, package distribution centers employ advanced scheduling systems and strategic staging areas that allow for goods received from warehouses to be immediately transferred to trucks for delivery to their final destinations. Some centers are so efficient that even the largest delivery trucks can be filled in a matter of minutes. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. throughput B. liability C. overhead D. staffing
Question 3
Researchers have developed algorithms that take into account how various _____ influence production schedules, allowing rapid solution generation for manufacturing planning problems. The algorithms help identify efficient production schedules by processing those quantifiable inputs (e.g., demand patterns and capacity constraints) without exhaustively testing all possible scenarios. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. anomalies B. predictions C. optimizations D. parameters
Question 4
Biologist Bryson Voirin and colleagues have employed hat-like monitors to _____ long-standing misconceptions about the activity patterns of sloths. It was once widely believed that the Linnaeus's two-toed sloth and other sloths are always slow. Data from the monitors reveal that sloths can move quickly in the tree canopies where they live. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. analyze B. perpetuate C. codify D. dispel
Question 5
The Apollo missions carried scientific instruments, including particle detectors and seismic sensors, to the Moon. These instruments generated data, much of which was stored on media or in formats that are now obsolete. A data-transfer project is working to _____ these data so that the information is available to researchers such as Renee Weber, who studies the Moon's interior using seismic measurements. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. improve B. amend C. salvage D. simplify
Question 6
Although Hawaiian literature is highly heterogeneous in many ways, it is also characterized by considerable thematic _____: scholars have drawn connections linking works by writers such as Samuel Kamakau and Kiana Davenport to the traditional stories of the Kanaka Maoli, the Native Hawaiian people. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. innovation B. subtlety C. sophistication D. continuity
Question 7
Marvel Girl's ability to lift modest loads with her mind is illustrative of the lamentably lackluster powers bestowed on many female superheroes, but even those with more formidable powers have been subject to unflattering portrayals that often serve as _____: as Talisman, Elizabeth Twoyoungmen loses control of a vast mystic force and turns on her teammates in Alpha Flight, showing the pitfalls of possessing great power. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase? A. obfuscations B. venerations C. exonerations D. admonitions
Question 8
The following text is from Kao Kalia Yang's 2016 memoir The Song Poet. The author describes an afternoon at home in Minnesota with her siblings and her father, an artist of traditional Hmong song poetry. In the deep of winter, after months of unceasing cold, my father points outside our front window at the ice-covered mounds of snow shining in the bright sun, under a cloudless sky of blue, and says, “Look at the garden of winter, the snow flowers are blooming today." My siblings and I leave our places by the big heater with its opening's single blue flame, and we look out into a picture of winter we thought we had grown sick of. We blink against the shine. Beneath our lashes, in the sliver of open eyes, stars twinkle in the colors of the winter rainbow. Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?? A. It reveals that the children find it bothersome that their father is constantly optimistic. B. It conveys that recent events have been confusing to the children. C. It establishes that the father's comment accurately reflects the children's ongoing feelings about their surroundings. D. It suggests that the children's perception of the scene outside has been shifted by the perspective their father expresses.
Question 9
The following text is from Liang Wei's 1911 memoir My Years in China and America. Liang Wei was the first person from China to graduate from a US university. Little did I realize when in 1847 I wrote, while in the Franklin School, a composition on “An Imaginary Voyage to Boston and up the Charles," that I was to see Boston in reality. This incident leads me to the reflection that sometimes our imagination foreshadows what lies uppermost in our minds and brings possibilities within the sphere of realities. Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?? A. It describes an event in Liang's life that exemplifies a phenomenon. B. It indicates Liang's unwillingness to distinguish between reality and fantasy as a child. C. It illustrates the sense of adventure that Liang developed as a child. D. It reinforces Liang's skill as a creative writer.
Question 10
Some researchers hypothesize that the species inhabiting the island of Grande Terre are members of clades that inhabited nearby islands before Grande Terre emerged 37 million years ago. While Thomas R. Buckley et al. found that the crown age (the age of the most recent common ancestor of all living species in the clade) is 41.1 million years for Grande Terre's clade of stick insects, most studies of the island's clades have reported more recent crown ages: Michael A. Sundue et al., for example, found that the crown age of Grande Terre's clade of Grammitis ferns is 8.5 million years. Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?? A. It acknowledges that there is compelling evidence both for and against a hypothesis presented earlier in the text. B. It explains why a finding that may appear to support a hypothesis introduced earlier in the text actually weakens that hypothesis. C. It concedes that there is some evidence consistent with a hypothesis that the text goes on to suggest is largely unsupported. D. It presents a discrepancy between two studies' results that the text later implies is due to one set of results being inaccurate.
Question 11
Text 1 With a shell that measured 1.7 meters, the extinct mollusk Parapuzosia seppenradensis is the largest ammonite in the fossil record. Ever since fossilized remains of this large ammonite were first discovered in 1895, scientists have been perplexed by its size. After examining 154 ammonite fossils including P. seppenradensis fossils from Montana and Parapuzosia leptophylla (a smaller ammonite species) fossils from Austria, Christina Ifrim, Arturo H. Gonzalez-Gonzalez, and colleagues concluded that P. seppenradensis may have evolved from P. leptophylla and gradually increased in size as larger ammonites were better able to avoid predation by mosasaurs. Text 2 Christina Ifrim and her team have expanded our understanding of the evolutionary history of ammonites in general, but their study has some gaps that will require additional research to fill. For instance, there's evidence that mosasaurs preyed on certain ammonites, but there's no direct evidence that they interacted supposed ancestor. Based on the texts, how do the author of Text 1 and the author of Text 2 differ in their approach to the study by Ifrim and her team? A. The author of Text 1 presents the study as useful for providing insights into ammonites in general, whereas the author of Text 2 concedes the study's general utility but suggests that the study is most interesting for its insight into P. seppenradensis. B. The author of Text 1 presents the study as potentially resolving a long-standing question, whereas the author of Text 2 acknowledges the study's value but suggests that the question remains unresolved. C. The author of Text 1 presents the study as being based on a large and robust collection of data, whereas the author of Text 2 presents the study as relying on data whose validity has been called into question. D. The author of Text 1 presents the study as illuminating the influence of mosasaur predation on the evolution of P. seppenradensis, whereas the author of Text 2 presents the study as lacking sufficient evidence to conclude that mosasaurs preyed on ammonites at all.
Question 12
Because they selectively defoliate certain preferred plant species, grazing livestock are a potential source of ecosystem disturbance. Alessandro Filazzola et al. analyzed data on plant abundance from areas with livestock grazing (control sites) and without it (treatment sites) in Argentina and nineteen other countries and calculated the effect of excluding grazing livestock, where positive values indicated greater plant abundance in treatment sites relative to control sites. The researchers found that the values were indeed positive, a result that was independent of the species of livestock as well as mean annual temperature and precipitation in the areas studied, which suggests that. Which choice most logically completes the text? A. although livestock grazing results in reduced plant abundance, this effect may be limited to certain climates and grazing by particular species of livestock. B. the presence of livestock grazing will negatively affect plant abundance across sites that differ in the livestock species present and in local climate conditions. C. the strength of the positive association between livestock grazing and plant abundance is not influenced by meteorological factors, such as temperature and precipitation. D. although livestock grazing is linked to declines in overall levels of ecosystem functioning, most ecosystems will adapt to this activity, minimizing long-term impacts on plant abundance.
Question 13
Rare species advantage (RSA) describes the situation in which there are few conspecifics (other members of the same species) in an organism's immediate surroundings, enabling the organism to avoid competition with conspecifics for the same resources; RSA is widely believed to play a crucial role in maintaining ecological stability. Among tree species in the Mo Singto plot (latitude 14.26-N) and other tropical forest sites, there is little correlation between conspecific aggregation and the abundance of a given species in the wider local area, so RSA is expected, but in the Smithsonian Conservation Biology Institute (latitude 38.89:N) and other temperate forest sites, the aggregation-abundance correlation for tree species is strongly negative. Mathematical modeling suggests, however, that ecological niche distinction may mitigate the apparent risk to temperate ecological stability engendered by this pattern: Which choice most logically completes the text? A. although rare tree species in temperate forests encounter relatively high local competition from conspecifics, they can thrive by exploiting resources that are underexploited by other local species. B. while an increase in abundance in one tree species often leads to a reduction in abundance of nearby species, temperate tree species tend to play different roles in the same ecosystem, reducing the expected effect of abundance on aggregation. C. even though rare tree species in temperate forests tend to cluster with conspecifics more than rare tree species in tropical forests do, they are sufficiently rare locally that they benefit from RSA more than rare tropical species do. D. as a tree species in temperate forests becomes more abundant, individuals of that species are more likely to be found near conspecifics, enabling abundant species to exploit localized resources to a greater extent than rare species can.
Question 14
The Arapaho language of the Plains region in the United States has 16 vowel and consonant sounds. In contrast, the Hadza language of eastern Africa has 70. Why would languages differ in this way? One researcher has hypothesized that when modern humans arose in Africa, they spoke a single language, but as humans gradually spread throughout Africa and then around the globe, that language developed into new languages. Those developed into still more languages as small bands of humans spread even farther, with each new language retaining fewer sounds from humanity's original language. Which finding, if true, would best support the researcher's hypothesis? A. The Piraha language of South America has only 11 sounds, far fewer than any Southwest Asian language has, and South America is much farther away from Africa than Southwest Asia is. B. The Sicilian language of Western Europe has only 30 sounds, fewer than most Southeast Asian languages have, and Western Europe is much closer to Africa than Southeast Asia is. C. The Ainu language has only 16 sounds, whereas the Nivkh language has 34 sounds, but both languages emerged in East Asia, in regions that are roughly the same distance from Africa. D. The Lhasa Tibetan language has 38 sounds and emerged in East Asia, far from Africa, whereas the Nkore language of East Africa has only 27 sounds.
Question 15
In 2018, Bagchi et al. investigated the effects of forest fragmentation on the nutritional value of tree leaves for folivores (leaf eaters). They measured water content in leaves of Acer rubrum (red maple) and Hamamelis virginiana (witch hazel) in Connecticut forest fragments and used water content as a proxy for nutrient content because water content is positively correlated with growth-promoting components such as nitrogen. Site Fragment size Tree Water (% mass) VF large A. rubrum 64.1% GC large H. virginiana 71.2% LF small A. rubrum 67.4% BB small H. virginiana 68.3% Which statement is best supported by the information provided in the table and the text? A. The H. virginiana leaves collected from site BB contained more water but less nitrogen than the A. rubrum leaves collected from site LF. B. There is a positive correlation between leaf water content and folivore growth rate in large forest fragments but not small fragments. C. Leaf water content from H. virginiana was consistently higher than that of A. rubrum, but the leaves of H. virginiana were less nutritious. D. The H. virginiana leaves collected from site GC were more nutritious than the A. rubrum leaves collected from site LF.
Question 16
Using hydrogen produced with renewable energy (green hydrogen) can help reduce a country's industrial carbon emissions, but scaling to meet growing demand is contingent on having sufficient space for renewable energy infrastructure. Assuming that 10% coverage of currently eligible land is feasible, researchers calculated a scarcity factor (values above 1 indicate insufficient land) for the United Kingdom, France, and China. A student suggests that these countries could meet demand with solar energy alone but not with wind alone. Which choice best describes the extent to which the student's claim is supported by data from the graph? A. The scarcity factors imply that all three countries will produce more hydrogen per unit of land by using only solar energy than by using only wind energy, which suggests that the solar coverage scenario is more feasible than the wind coverage scenario; therefore, the student's claim is fully supported. B. France has the lowest scarcity factor for wind among the three countries, suggesting that it will likely need to supplement wind with solar; therefore, the student's claim is not supported for France but is for the United Kingdom and China. C. The scarcity factors indicate that although France and China would have the capacity to use only solar energy but not only wind energy to meet green hydrogen demands, the United Kingdom would not have the capacity to meet demands using either solar or wind energy; therefore, the student's claim is only supported for France and China. D. The scarcity factors indicate that even though solar energy installations require less land than wind energy installations do, none of the countries will be able to dedicate 10% of available land for solar energy use; therefore, the student's claim isn't supported for any of the three countries.
Question 17
While US public charities must file Form 990 yearly with the IRS, private foundations must file Form 990-PF. Foundations that engage in certain prohibited activities must also file Form 4720 and pay a penalty tax. Out of the organizations that filed Form 990-PF in 2003–2005, _____. Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the assertion? A. those that filed Form 4720 because they engaged in self-dealing paid an increasing percentage of the total penalty each year from 2003 to 2005. B. those that filed Form 4720 because they had excess holdings in a business enterprise paid, on average, a larger penalty than those that filed Form 4720 because they made taxable expenditures. C. those that filed Form 4720 in 2003 because they failed to meet the minimum charitable distribution requirement collectively paid a larger percentage of the total penalty assessed that year than those that filed Form 4720 in 2005 for the same reason. D. those that filed Form 4720 in 2005 because they engaged in self-dealing collectively paid a larger percentage of the total penalty assessed that year than those that filed Form 990 but also filed Form 4720 for the same reason.
Question 18
Nanoengineers have developed synthesized selenium nanoparticles that are used to target harmful cells in the body without damaging other cells. As nanotechnology evolves, medical technology. _____ to evolve as well. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A. will likely continue B. would likely have continued C. had likely continued D. had likely been continuing
Question 19
To more easily balance the weight of her body on her toes while performing the demanding pointe work that became increasingly common in early 20th-century ballet, internationally known ballerina Anna Pavlova redesigned her pointe shoes. The modifications she made-adding a stiffened leather sole and hardened toe _____ began the modernization of ballet's iconic footwear. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A. box: B. box- C. box, D. box
Question 20
Named for the year in which it was detected by American astronomers, SN 1972E was a supernova (the explosion of a massive _____ in the constellation Centaurus, 11 million light- years from Earth, the transient yet powerful blast propelled particles and debris into space at extremely high speeds. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A. star). Occurring B. star), occurring C. star) and occurring D. star) occurring
Question 21
The heseb, which is written as a hieroglyph that looks like an X, and the khefa, which is written as a short, horizontal hieroglyph shaped like the back of a fist, were ancient Egyptian units of to record area and length, respectively, the heseb and khefa have since fallen out of use. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A. measurement. Used B. measurement used C. measurement and used D. measurement, used
Question 22
Brunei is among the forty-one small countries that meet a series of objective criteria for microstate status proposed by political economist Archie Simpson in a 2022 _____ membership in the United Nations, which Brunei attained in 1984; and adherence to the 1933 Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English? A. analysis; a population under one million, B. analysis-a population under one million; C. analysis: a population under one million, D. analysis, a population under one million;
Question 23
Many cities invest in public art, displaying works in locations where they can be enjoyed by anyone. _____ on display in Minneapolis, Minnesota, is a fifty-foot-long metal sculpture of a spoon with a cherry on its tip. Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition? A. Nevertheless, B. Finally, C. For instance, D. However,
Question 24
India's prominence as a supplier of information technology services to companies in North America and Europe is a result of several factors, including the country's investments in technical education, but the most serendipitous is India's large number of English speakers. English is spoken by more people in India-129 million-than in any nation except the US. only about 10% of Indians speak English. Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition? A. Accordingly, 90% of people in India-over one billion people-do not speak the language: B. However, English is not the first language for most English speakers in India: C. As a result, careers in information technology services are not available to all people in India: D. Granted, this numerical advantage is due more to population size than to language penetration:
Question 25
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: The Way to Rainy Mountain was written by Kiowa author N. Scott Momaday.: The book traces the Kiowa people's migration from the Yellowstone headwaters region to Rainy Mountain, Oklahoma.. It is divided into twenty-four narrative units.. Each unit contains three short passages, each with a separate focus: one on ancient stories from Kiowa oral tradition, one on written historical records, and one on Momaday's personal reflections.: Together, these different perspectives provide a better understanding of the Kiowa people's journey than a single perspective would. The student wants to describe The Way to Rainy Mountain's overall organization. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? A. With passages dedicated to different historical perspectives, The Way to Rainy Mountain provides a better understanding of the Kiowa people's history than do other approaches. B. The Way to Rainy Mountain is divided into three narrative units with twenty-four passages each, some of which discuss Kiowa oral traditions, written historical records, and Momaday's personal reflections. C. The Way to Rainy Mountain traces the Kiowa people's migration from the Yellowstone headwaters region to Rainy Mountain, Oklahoma. D. The Way to Rainy Mountain is divided into twenty-four narrative units with three passages each: one on traditional Kiowa stories, one on historical records, and one on the author's personal reflections.
Question 26
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: Body positions are an important part of dance.: In French ballet, there is a position called fifth position: It is one of several positions for the dancer's arms. The student wants to provide an example of a position in French ballet. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? A. In dance, some positions are for the dancer's arms. B. French ballet includes several dance positions for the dancer's arms. C. Fifth position is an example of a position in French ballet. D. Body positions are an important part of dance, including French ballet.
Question 27
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: The Mohs scale of mineral hardness is a ten-point scale that orders minerals by hardness based on their ability to scratch other minerals.. Minerals with larger numbers are harder than minerals with smaller numbers and can leave visible scratches on them.: Minerals with smaller numbers are softer than minerals with larger numbers and cannot leave visible scratches on them.. The mineral calcite has a Mohs scale number of 3.. The mineral apatite has a Mohs scale number of 5. The mineral topaz has a Mohs scale number of 8. The student wants to compare the hardness of calcite and topaz. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal? A. Topaz can leave visible scratches on calcite, which means that topaz is harder than calcite. B. Topaz can leave visible scratches on apatite, which is why topaz has a higher number than apatite on the Mohs scale of mineral hardness. C. A mineral with a Mohs number of 5, like apatite, is harder than one with a Mohs number of 3, like calcite. D. The Mohs scale of mineral hardness can be used to order apatite, calcite, and topaz by their ability to scratch other minerals.